A 37-year-old woman is evaluated for an episode of blood in her urine. She notes the passage of red-colored urine that resolved spontaneously and was not associated with her menstrual cycle. She reports having had several similar episodes in the past. She has no other symptoms such as abdominal pain or dysuria. Medical history is otherwise unremarkable, and she takes no medications.

On physical examination, the patient is afebrile. Blood pressure is 128/78 mm Hg, pulse rate is 82/min, and respiration rate is 13/min. Cardiopulmonary and abdominal examinations are normal. There is no flank tenderness to palpation. The remainder of the examination is unremarkable.

Laboratory studies show a normal complete blood count and metabolic profile and a serum creatinine level of 0.9 mg/dL (79.6 µmol/L). Dipstick urinalysis is positive for blood and protein but is negative for leukocyte esterase and nitrites.

Microscopy of the urine sediment is shown.

Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the evaluation of this patient?