A 24-year-old man is evaluated in the hospital for progressively worsening kidney function. He was admitted 5 days ago with fevers and was diagnosed with endocarditis with methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus. Intravenous vancomycin was started and adjusted daily to target levels of 15 to 20 µg/mL (10.4-13.8 µmol/L). Since admission, his fevers have resolved, but his serum creatinine level has gradually increased. Medical history includes two previous admissions for staphylococcal endocarditis treated with prolonged courses of antibiotics. He has occasionally used injection drugs, including heroin, during the past 4 years. His only medication is vancomycin.

On physical examination, temperature is 37.3 °C (99.2 °F), blood pressure is 110/70 mm Hg, pulse rate is 92/min, and respiration rate is 18/min. BMI is 22. Cardiac examination is notable for a soft diastolic murmur along the left sternal border. There is trace lower extremity edema. There is no skin rash or arthritis.

Laboratory studies:

C3

Low

C4

Normal

Creatinine

2.8 mg/dL (247.5 µmol/L) (1.5 mg/dL [132.6 µmol/L] on admission)

Cryoglobulins

Negative

Urinalysis

3+ blood; 2+ protein; 30-40 erythrocytes/hpf; 10-15 leukocytes/hpf; erythrocyte casts

Transthoracic ultrasound shows moderate aortic regurgitation without vegetations (confirmed on transesophageal ultrasound). Kidney ultrasound shows normal-sized, mildly echogenic kidneys. Doppler study of the renal arteries and veins is normal.

Which of the following is the most appropriate management?