A 20-year-old woman is evaluated during a new-patient visit for persistent dipstick-positive hematuria initially discovered 2 years ago when she was evaluated for a possible urinary tract infection. Two subsequent urinalyses have shown dipstick-positive hematuria and 10-15 erythrocytes/hpf on microscopic examination without other abnormalities. She has not noted any episodes of gross hematuria or other urinary tract symptoms. She reports no fever, rash, or arthritis. Family history is notable for her mother and maternal aunt who have hematuria; there is no family history of kidney disease. Medical history is otherwise negative, and the patient takes no medications.
On physical examination, the patient is afebrile, blood pressure is 118/78 mm Hg, pulse rate is 64/min, and respiration rate is 14/min. BMI is 22. The remainder of the physical examination is normal.
Complements (C3 and C4) | Normal |
Creatinine | 0.6 mg/dL (53 µmol/L) |
Hepatitis B and C serologies | Negative |
Antinuclear antibodies | Negative |
ANCA | Negative |
Urinalysis | 2+ blood; no protein; 10-15 erythrocytes/hpf; no casts |
Urine protein-creatinine ratio | 110 mg/g |
Kidney ultrasound is normal.
Which of the following is the most appropriate management?