A 24-year-old woman is evaluated for fever, lower extremity edema, and worsening malar rash. She was diagnosed with systemic lupus erythematosus 2 years ago. Her initial evaluation showed normal kidney function, trace proteinuria, and an otherwise normal urinalysis; periodic monitoring of her kidney function and urinalysis has been unchanged. She has been treated with hydroxychloroquine and prednisone, 5 mg/d, since the time of her diagnosis with good control of her symptoms. Medical history is otherwise unremarkable, and she takes no additional medications.
On physical examination, blood pressure is 140/92 mm Hg. A malar rash is present. Mild erythema and effusion in the left knee and bilateral wrist joints are noted. The remainder of the examination is unremarkable.
Hemoglobin | 9.2 g/dL (92 g/L) |
C3 | Low |
C4 | Low |
Creatinine | 1.0 mg/dL (88.4 µmol/L) |
Liver chemistry tests | Normal |
Anti–double-stranded DNA antibodies | Elevated |
Urinalysis | 3+ blood; 2+ protein; 20-30 erythrocytes/hpf; 5-10 leukocytes/hpf |
Urine protein-creatinine ratio | 2200 mg/g |
A kidney biopsy shows a diffuse proliferative glomerulonephritis with immunofluorescence microscopy showing granular deposits in the subendothelial, mesangial, and subepithelial areas (IgG, IgM, IgA, C3, and C1q), which are confirmed by electron microscopy, and is classified as class IV lupus nephritis.
Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment?