A 57-year-old woman is evaluated during a preoperative physical examination for a total left knee replacement. Medical history is significant for osteoarthritis; her only medication is over-the-counter ibuprofen, which she takes multiple times daily for pain relief.

On physical examination, blood pressure is 152/90 mm Hg, and pulse rate is 64/min. BMI is 34. Severe osteoarthritic changes are noted in the left knee. Trace pitting edema in the ankles is noted. The remainder of the examination is unremarkable.

Laboratory studies show a serum creatinine level of 1.2 mg/dL (106.1 µmol/L) and a serum potassium level of 5.1 mEq/L (5.1 mmol/L); urine dipstick demonstrates no blood or protein.

Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient's blood pressure?