A 70-year-old woman is evaluated in the emergency department for acute-onset fever and rigors that began during hemodialysis. She has end-stage kidney disease due to chronic glomerulonephritis. She started hemodialysis 1 month ago via a right internal jugular tunneled cuffed catheter. A left forearm arteriovenous fistula was placed 1 week ago. Medications are labetalol, sevelamer, epoetin alfa, and calcitriol.
On physical examination, temperature is 37.9 °C (100.2 °F), blood pressure is 145/95 mm Hg, pulse rate is 95/min, and respiration rate is 20/min. BMI is 23. Examination of the right internal jugular catheter site reveals no tenderness, induration, or discharge. The left forearm arteriovenous fistula is nontender with a clean, well-healed surgical incision. There is no heart murmur. The lungs are clear. The remainder of the physical examination is unremarkable.
Laboratory studies are notable for a leukocyte count of 13,000/µL (13 × 109/L) and a plasma lactate level of 1.0 mEq/L (1.0 mmol/L). Blood cultures are pending.
A chest radiograph is normal.
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?