A 42-year-old man is evaluated in the emergency department for a 1-week history of bilateral leg weakness and numbness. He has an 8-year history of multiple sclerosis (MS) that is currently well controlled with natalizumab; he has had no MS exacerbations since beginning treatment 2 years ago after unsuccessful trials of interferon beta and glatiramer acetate. The patient also has chronic fatigue and depression. Medications are monthly natalizumab, twice daily amantadine and extended-release bupropion, a daily multivitamin, and a calcium–vitamin D supplement that he rarely takes.
On physical examination, temperature is 36.7 °C (98.1 °F), blood pressure is 124/58 mm Hg, pulse rate is 74/min, and respiration rate is 14/min. Muscle strength is 4/5 in the bilateral hip flexors, knee flexors, and foot dorsiflexors. Decreased pinprick sensation is noted just below the umbilicus.
Laboratory studies performed 3 weeks ago showed no evidence of elevated serum antibody titers against the JC virus. Results of current complete blood count, liver chemistry studies, and a urinalysis show no abnormalities.
An MRI of the brain shows white matter hyperintensities consistent with MS and is unchanged from an MRI obtained 1 year ago.
In addition to a 5-day infusion of intravenous methylprednisolone, which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?