A 27-year-old woman is evaluated for a severe migraine with typical aura and right-sided sensory symptoms that occurred 1 day ago. Migraine was diagnosed at age 13 years, is often preceded by 45 minutes of visual loss (which she describes as “losing half my sight”), is only associated with onset of menses, involves hemicranial throbbing pain associated with nausea and vomiting, and lasts 90 minutes if treated and 24 hours if untreated. Yesterday's migraine was again preceded by the typical visual loss and 40 minutes later by numbness and paresthesia in the right upper extremity, starting in her hand and migrating toward her forearm; these sensations eventually involved her right tongue and throat, lasted an additional 50 minutes, and then resolved completely. The patient has experienced no recurrence of symptoms in the past 24 hours. Medications are rizatriptan and a combined estrogen-progesterone oral contraceptive initiated 3 months ago at a family planning clinic.
On physical examination, blood pressure is 122/72 mm Hg and pulse rate is 66/min. All other physical examination findings, including those from a neurologic examination, are unremarkable.
Findings on a brain MRI and magnetic resonance angiogram are normal.
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?