A 40-year-old man is reevaluated for a 1-year history of recurrent tonic-clonic seizures that have not responded to treatment with valproic acid and topiramate. When describing the seizures, his wife says that he usually drops to the ground and begins “shaking all over”; the shaking typically lasts 10 to 15 minutes, with the patient's eyes remaining closed during the event. He subsequently is confused for 30 to 60 minutes. The seizures initially occurred 1 or 2 times per month but recently have been occurring every other day. On several occasions, he has become incontinent. He is a military veteran who sustained a closed head injury in combat 5 years ago and has posttraumatic stress disorder. Medications are twice daily valproic acid and topiramate.

On physical examination, vital signs are normal. General medical examination findings are normal. On neurologic examination, flattening of the nasolabial fold on the right is noted, and right pronator drift is present. Deep tendon reflexes are 3+ in the right upper and lower extremities. A plantar extensor response is noted in the right toe.

Results of laboratory studies are normal, with a serum valproic acid level within the therapeutic range.

An MRI of the brain reveals left frontal lobe encephalomalacia. An electroencephalogram (EEG) shows intermittent left frontal slowing.

Which of the following is the most appropriate management?