A 50-year-old man is evaluated for a 1-year history of increasing urinary frequency and urgency and occasional urge incontinence. He has no symptoms of urinary hesitancy or incomplete emptying. The patient has primary progressive multiple sclerosis. Medications are dalfampridine and vitamin D. [OK to leave patient on these drugs only, or add/change to “ocrelizumab”?]

On physical evaluation, temperature is 36.8 °C (98.2 °F), blood pressure is 120/55 mm Hg, and pulse rate is 68/min. Findings of abdominal and digital rectal examinations are normal. Finger-to-nose testing reveals dysmetria bilaterally. Leg tone is increased bilaterally. Muscle strength is 4/5 in both legs. Gait testing reveals spasticity and ataxia.

A urinalysis is negative for infection.

Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment?