A 45-year-old man is evaluated in the emergency department for a 3-week history of headache and impaired vision on the right side. He has not previously had frequent headaches, but the current pain has been constant and worsening since onset. The patient thinks that something is wrong with his eyesight because he has been running into or tripping over objects on the right side. He has no significant medical history and takes no medication.
On physical examination, vital signs are normal. No papilledema is noted on funduscopic examination. A slit lamp examination shows no cells in the vitreous humor. Other findings from the general medical examination are unremarkable. Neurologic examination reveals the presence of right homonymous hemianopia.
An MRI of the brain shows a lesion in the left occipital lobe that is highly suspicious for central nervous system lymphoma.
Results of laboratory studies include a normal leukocyte count and differential and no evidence of HIV antibodies.
Cytologic analysis of cerebrospinal fluid shows no malignant cells.
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?