A 44-year-old man is evaluated for a 1-week history of severe, recurrent, left periorbital headaches. The patient has experienced a 10- to 12-week period of similar headaches every spring for the past 3 years. Headaches occur once or twice daily, last 2 to 3 hours if untreated, and are accompanied by nausea, photophobia, and ipsilateral tearing but no aura or vomiting. Resting during headache episodes brings no relief; he instead paces the floor. Simple analgesics and prednisone have been ineffective in treating the headache. Although subcutaneous sumatriptan generally relieves symptoms within 5 to 10 minutes, his headache frequency and dosing limitations preclude his using this drug every time he has symptoms. The patient has a 20-pack-year history of smoking. He takes no other medication.

On physical examination, blood pressure is 134/82 mm Hg and pulse rate is 78/min. All other physical examination findings, including those from a neurologic examination, are unremarkable.

Which of the following is the most appropriate next step?