A 35-year-old woman is evaluated in the emergency department for a 3-day history of diplopia, vertigo, and gait imbalance that has prevented her going to work. She reports no additional symptoms. The patient has multiple sclerosis, vitamin D deficiency, and depression. Medications are interferon beta-1a, vitamin D, and extended-release venlafaxine.

On physical examination, temperature is 36.5 °C (97.7 °F), blood pressure is 100/55 mm Hg, pulse rate is 72/min, and respiration rate is 14/min. Incomplete abduction of the right eye is noted when the patient looks to the right. Finger-to-nose testing with the right arm reveals dysmetria. Tandem gait testing results in a near fall.

A T2-weighted MRI of the brain shows multiple new lesions, three of which enhance after administration of intravenous contrast.

Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in treatment?