A 59-year-old woman is evaluated for headaches and occasional double vision. The patient has had episodes of migraine with aura since age 12 years. Aura symptoms include visual blurring and ipsilateral facial numbness lasting approximately 15 minutes. After menopause, migraine attacks became less frequent and intense, declining from 12 to 5 days per month, but over the past 4 months have again become more frequent, increasing to 15 days per month. She describes these recent headaches, which are not associated with her typical aura, as more bilateral and “squeezing” in nature than previous ones and reports intermittent visual blurring and two instances of horizontal diplopia lasting 2 hours. The patient has had no other neurologic symptoms. The recent headaches respond to neither ibuprofen nor to the naratriptan she uses to treat acute migraine episodes. Her only other medication is amitriptyline for migraine prophylaxis.
On physical examination, blood pressure is 128/86 mm Hg and pulse rate is 78/min; BMI is 27. Other results of the general medical and neurologic examinations are normal.
Which of the following is the most appropriate management?