A 46-year-old woman is evaluated for intermittent left-sided tingling and a subsequent headache. She was seen in an emergency department 3 weeks ago for similar symptoms. At that time, a noncontrast CT scan of the head and an MRI of the brain were normal, but a magnetic resonance angiogram showed a 5-mm left middle cerebral artery aneurysm. Results of cerebrospinal fluid analysis were normal. The patient has hypertension and migraine, but she has no other medical history of note. She has a 15-pack-year smoking history, currently smoking approximately ten cigarettes daily, and does not drink alcoholic beverages. Her only medication is amlodipine.

On physical examination, vital signs are normal. Other results of the general and neurologic examinations are normal.

Which of the following is the most appropriate next step?