A 55-year-old man is treated in the emergency department for convulsive status epilepticus. He stops convulsing after receiving intravenous lorazepam and phenytoin but is still confused 30 minutes after treatment. According to his wife who accompanied him, a left temporal cavernous malformation was detected 3 years ago and has been managed conservatively. He has no significant family medical history and takes no chronic medication.

On physical examination, temperature is 36.8 °C (98.2 °F), blood pressure is 130/90 mm Hg, pulse rate is 115/min, and respiration rate is 12/min. The patient is generally stuporous but intermittently alert to voice or sternal rub. He occasionally utters nonsensical phrases, mostly consisting of syllables that are not real words, and inconsistently follows some one-step commands. Cranial nerves are intact, and pupils are symmetric and reactive. No weakness is detected in the face or limbs.

A CT of the head shows an acute hemorrhage in the region of the patient's cavernous malformation. The hemorrhage measures 0.5 × 0.5 × 1.0 cm. No significant mass effect or midline shift is noted.

Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?