A 56-year-old woman is evaluated for a 4-week history of slowly progressive shortness of breath. She has a nonproductive cough that started around the same time and did not improve after a course of azithromycin. She has not had fever, chills, chest pain, wheezing, orthopnea, or lower extremity edema. Her medical history is notable for hormone receptor–negative infiltrating ductal carcinoma of the left breast diagnosed 8 months ago and treated with lumpectomy, radiation therapy, and adjuvant chemotherapy. She currently takes no medications.
On physical examination, temperature is 37.1 °C (98.8 °F), blood pressure is 124/76 mm Hg, pulse rate is 110/min, respiration rate is 14/min, and oxygen saturation is 91% breathing ambient air; BMI is 26. Crackles are noted at the left lung base. The left breast shows a well-healed lumpectomy scar and mild radiation skin changes, but no masses. There is no cervical, supraclavicular, or axillary lymphadenopathy. No clubbing is observed.
A complete blood count is normal.
A chest CT with pulmonary embolism protocol was compared with a CT obtained 6 months ago. It shows left hilar and mediastinal lymphadenopathy with new interstitial thickening and beading at the left lung base and no ground-glass opacification. There is no evidence of pulmonary embolism.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?