A 62-year-old man was admitted to the ICU 3 days ago with community-acquired pneumonia complicated by septic shock and acute respiratory distress syndrome. In the past 24 hours, his fever and lactic acidosis have resolved, and the patient no longer requires vasopressors to maintain adequate blood pressure. However, he has become oliguric and is requiring higher FIO2 and positive end-expiratory pressure (PEEP) to maintain oxygenation. He is receiving normal saline maintenance fluid at 100 mL/h. The net fluid balance since admission is positive 8.2 L. His current medications are ceftriaxone, azithromycin, and propofol.
On physical examination, temperature is 37.1 °C (98.8 °F), blood pressure is 92/52 mm Hg, pulse rate is 88/min, and respiration rate is 28/min; BMI is 26. Oxygen saturation is 91% on an FIO2 of 0.8 and a PEEP of 16 cm H2O. Mentation seems clear, and the skin is warm. Central venous pressure is 17 cm H2O. Cardiac examination reveals a regular rhythm without gallop or rub. Chest examination reveals diffuse inspiratory crackles with decreased breath sounds at the bases. There is pitting edema present in all extremities.
Creatinine | 2.2 mg/dL (194.5 µmol/L) (baseline 1.2 mg/dL [106.1 µmol/L]) |
Potassium | 4 mEq/L (4 mmol/L) |
Arterial blood gases: | |
pH | 7.30 |
PCO2 | 50 mm Hg (6.7 kPa) |
PO2 | 86 mm Hg (11.4 kPa) |
A chest radiograph shows bilateral infiltrates and interval development of small bilateral pleural effusions.
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in treatment?