A 30-year-old woman is evaluated in follow-up for wheezing and cough that started 6 weeks ago after a viral respiratory illness. At that time she had daily wheezing and cough with nocturnal symptoms that would disturb her sleep. An as-needed β2-agonist was prescribed for symptomatic relief. She reports feeling much better. Her daytime symptoms of wheezing and cough have resolved, but she notes that she awakens from sleep with shortness of breath approximately twice a week. Medical history is notable for mild asthma as a child that was treated for several years; however, she has not required treatment since age 15 years. Her only medication is as-needed inhaled albuterol. She is a never-smoker.

On physical examination, vital signs are normal. No wheezing is noted on pulmonary examination. The remainder of the examination is normal.

Spirometry demonstrates an FEV1/FVC ratio of 76%, with an improvement of 15% in the FEV1 following treatment with a bronchodilator.

Which of the following is the most appropriate management?