A 28-year-old man is evaluated for a 6-month history of fatigue, increase in exertional dyspnea, and cough. He has not had weight loss, fever, night sweats, or recent respiratory illness. He lives in the Northeast and has no travel history, occupational exposures, or illness contacts. His medical history is noncontributory and he takes no medications.

On physical examination, vital signs and cardiopulmonary examination are normal. There is no cervical or axillary lymphadenopathy and no skin findings.

Complete blood count and comprehensive metabolic profile are normal. Spirometry testing reveals an FVC of 72% of predicted, an FEV1 of 75% of predicted, and an FEV1/FVC ratio of 78%.

Chest radiograph shows bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy and normal lung parenchyma. Chest CT scan with contrast shows bilateral hilar and mediastinal and subcarinal lymphadenopathy, along with bilateral small lung nodules with a perihilar distribution.

Tuberculin skin testing is negative.

Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?