A 62-year-old woman is evaluated for a 2-year history of progressively frequent and severe pain in the right knee. She has osteoarthritis with good control of her other joint symptoms with her current therapy that includes medication and a daily exercise regimen. She notes about 20 minutes of morning stiffness in the right knee with significant pain with use after rest; her activities are increasingly limited due to these symptoms. History is otherwise unremarkable. Medications are acetaminophen and celecoxib.

On physical examination, blood pressure is 135/82 mm Hg. BMI is 32. There are Heberden nodes of the second and fifth distal interphalangeal joints bilaterally and Bouchard nodes of the second and third proximal interphalangeal joints bilaterally. Bony hypertrophy of the knees is present. There is a positive bulge sign for effusion of the right knee with slight warmth but no erythema.

Standing radiographs of the knees show right (greater than left) medial joint-space narrowing, bilateral osteophytes, and bilateral peaking of the tibial spines.

Aspiration of the right knee is performed; synovial fluid analysis shows a leukocyte count of 250/µL (0.25 × 109/L) and no evidence of crystals.

Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?