A 65-year-old man is evaluated for severe abdominal pain, joint pain, and a rash. He states that he had an upper respiratory infection about 10 days ago. Three days ago he noted a rash on his lower extremities. One day later, he experienced pain in his knees and ankles, along with abdominal pain that worsened over the past two days. He reports no visual symptoms, numbness, weakness, or other symptoms.

On physical examination, the patient appears uncomfortable. The chest and cardiac examinations are unremarkable. Decreased bowel sounds and diffuse abdominal tenderness without rebound are noted. The knees and ankles are tender and mildly swollen. Palpable purpuric lesions are present on the lower extremities, including the soles of the feet. The remainder of the physical examination reveals no abnormalities.

Laboratory studies show a normal complete blood count, an erythrocyte sedimentation rate of 88 mm/h, a serum creatinine level of 1.7 mg/dL (150.3 µmol/L), and a urinalysis showing 3+ protein, 20-30 erythrocytes/hpf, 20-30 leukocytes/hpf, and mixed granular and cellular casts. A stool test is positive for occult blood.

An abdominal ultrasound reveals thickening and edema of the ileum. A biopsy of an affected skin lesion demonstrates the presence of small-vessel, leukocytoclastic vasculitis accompanied by deposition of IgA.

Which of the following is the most appropriate therapy at this time?