A 30-year-old man is evaluated for a 6-month history of pain behind his right heel. The pain is worse after immobility, and he has morning stiffness in the foot lasting 1 hour. He has tried acetaminophen without much relief. History is also significant for a 3-year history of intermittent left eye uveitis treated with a prednisolone ophthalmic solution. He has no other symptoms.

On physical examination, vital signs are normal. There is no tenderness of the lumbar spine or sacroiliac joints; full range of motion of the lumbar spine is noted. Mild swelling and tenderness at the insertion of the Achilles tendon are noted. The remainder of the examination is normal.

Radiographs of the sacroiliac joints are normal. Radiographs of the right heel show soft-tissue swelling and an erosion at the insertion of the Achilles tendon.

Which of the following is the most appropriate diagnostic test to perform next?