A 75-year-old woman is evaluated for progressive left knee pain. She has a 20-year history of bilateral knee osteoarthritis. There is no recent history of injury. She was recently discharged from the hospital for gastrointestinal bleeding related to her use of ibuprofen. She experienced only transient relief from previous glucocorticoid and hyaluronic acid injections. She is enrolled in physical therapy and exercises to increase her quadriceps strength. History is also significant for hypertension, coronary artery disease, hypercholesterolemia, and osteoporosis. Other medications are omeprazole, aspirin, lisinopril, propranolol, rosuvastatin, and alendronate.

On physical examination, vital signs are normal. BMI is 24. Mild weakness on muscle group testing and atrophy are noted in the quadriceps. There is marked bony hypertrophy of the left knee (greater than the right) without warmth, erythema, or effusion.

Which of the following is the most appropriate management for this patient?