A 71-year-old man is evaluated for long-standing stiffness, decreased range of motion, and pain of the neck, mid back, and low back. He has no history of falls or injuries. The stiffness and pain do not improve with activity and are not noticeably worse in bed or with inactivity. Acetaminophen provides minimal relief. He has no other medical problems.

On physical examination, vital signs and BMI are normal. Skin examination is normal. Bony hypertrophy of the second through fifth distal interphalangeal joints and the second and fifth proximal interphalangeal joints is present. Marked reduction in thoracic lateral bending and reduction of spinal flexion and extension are noted.

Plain radiographs of the thoracic spine show flowing osteophytes involving the anterolateral aspect of the thoracic spine at five contiguous vertebrae; there is normal disk height, the apophyseal joints are without osteophytes or bony sclerosis, and the sacroiliac joints are without erosions.

Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?