A 42-year-old woman is evaluated for a 6-month history of pain and swelling of several small hand joints, an elbow, and an ankle. She gets modest relief with naproxen. She has no other medical problems and takes no additional medications.

On physical examination, vital signs are normal. There are tenderness to palpation and swelling of the second and third proximal interphalangeal joints bilaterally, second and fifth metacarpophalangeal joints bilaterally, left wrist, right elbow, and right ankle. The remainder of the physical examination is normal.

Laboratory studies are significant for a rheumatoid factor of 85 U/mL (85 kU/L) and positive anti–cyclic citrullinated peptide antibodies.

Radiographs of the hands and wrists show periarticular osteopenia at the metacarpophalangeal joints and a marginal erosion at the right second metacarpal head.

Which of the following is the most appropriate initial treatment?