A 35-year-old man is evaluated for a 4-week history of persistent pain and swelling in the left knee and right ankle. Symptoms are worse in the morning and associated with stiffness lasting 1 hour. Ibuprofen is beneficial. Seven weeks ago he had diarrhea that lasted one week and resolved without treatment. One week ago he was diagnosed with anterior uveitis, which is resolving with a prednisolone ophthalmic solution. He reports no current gastrointestinal or genitourinary symptoms, rash, or cardiorespiratory symptoms.
On physical examination, vital signs are normal. Slightly injected sclera of the right eye is noted. There are swelling, warmth, and tenderness of the right knee joint. Tenderness and swelling at the right Achilles tendon insertion to the calcaneus are noted. There is no rash or nail pitting. The remainder of the physical examination is normal.
Complete blood count with differential | Normal |
Erythrocyte sedimentation rate | 30 mm/h |
Stool cultures | Negative |
Urinalysis | Normal |
DNA amplification urine test for Chlamydia trachomatis | Negative |
Aspiration of the left knee is performed; synovial fluid analysis reveals a leukocyte count of 15,000/µL (15 × 109/L) with 70% monocytes and no crystals. Gram stain is negative, and cultures are pending.
Radiographs of the knee and ankle are normal.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?