A 27-year-old man is evaluated for a 2-year history of ankylosing spondylitis. Symptoms were initially responsive to physical therapy and naproxen; however, for the past 6 months he has experienced increasing back and buttock pain and stiffness, with difficulty bending downward. One month ago naproxen was discontinued, and indomethacin was initiated but with no improvement.

On physical examination, vital signs are normal. BMI is 25. Tenderness to palpation over the sacroiliac joints and lower lumbar spine is noted. There is limited range of motion of the lumbar spine manifested by an increase of 1 cm of change on forward flexion.

Laboratory studies reveal an erythrocyte sedimentation rate of 40 mm/h.

In addition to continuing physical therapy, which of the following is the most appropriate treatment?