A 34-year-old man is evaluated for progressive left knee pain. The pain causes difficulty with his work as a mail carrier, particularly when walking. His occupation does not require repetitive bending. He played football in college and experienced left knee trauma during sports participation; he underwent left meniscectomy and stopped playing sports. His mother has osteoarthritis of the hands that developed at age 65 years.
On physical examination, vital signs are normal. BMI is 27. Bone hypertrophy of the left knee is noted. There is crepitus but no warmth, erythema, swelling, or effusion of the knees.
Plain radiographs (anteroposterior views) show medial joint-space narrowing of both knees but greater on the left as well as osteophytes and bony sclerosis of the tibial plateau of the left knee; there is no periarticular osteopenia or erosive or destructive changes.
Which of the following is the most likely cause of this patient's left knee osteoarthritis?