A 56-year-old man is evaluated for painless intermittent bloody urine of 6 weeks' duration. History is significant for granulomatosis with polyangiitis (formerly known as Wegener granulomatosis) diagnosed 10 years ago, which is now in remission; he was treated with prednisone for 3 years and oral cyclophosphamide for 1 year. He also has hypertension and hyperlipidemia. Current medications are metoprolol and atorvastatin.
On physical examination, temperature is 36.7 °C (98.0 °F), blood pressure is 146/94 mm Hg, pulse rate is 68/min, and respiration rate is 14/min. BMI is 28. There are no rashes or ulcers. Genitalia are normal. The remainder of the examination, including cardiopulmonary examination, is normal.
Chemistry panel and kidney function tests | Normal |
Hemoglobin | 12.1 g/dL (121 g/L) |
Erythrocyte sedimentation rate | 35 mm/h |
p-ANCA | Negative |
Antimyeloperoxidase antibodies | Negative |
Antiproteinase 3 antibodies | Negative |
Urinalysis | Trace protein; 10-20 erythrocytes/hpf; 0-2 leukocytes/hpf; no casts |
Urine cultures | Negative |
A chest radiograph is normal.
Which of the following is the most appropriate diagnostic test to perform next?